The PMHNP wants to use a symptom-based approach to treating a patient with fibromyalgia. How does the PMHNP go about treating this patient?
a) Prescribing the patient an agent that ignores the painful symptoms by initiating a reaction known as “fibro-fog”
b) Targeting the patient’s symptoms with anticonvulsants that inhibits gray matter loss in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
c) Mzatching the patient’s symptoms with the malfunctioning brain circuits and neurotransimitters that might mediate those symptoms
d) None of the above
The PMHNP is working with the student to care for a patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathic pain. The student asks the PMHNP why SSRIs are not consistently useful in treating this particular patient’s pain. What is the best response by the PMHNP?
a) “SSRIs only increase norepinephrine levels”
b) “SSRIs only increase serotonin levels”
c) “SSRIs only increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels”
d) “SSRIs do not increase serotonin or norepinephrine levels”
A patient with gambling disorder and no other psychiatric comorbidities is being treated with pharmacological agents. Which drug is the PMHNP most likely to prescribe?
Kevin is an adolescent who has been diagnosed with kleptomania. His parents are interested in seeking pharmacological treatment. What does the PMHNP tell the parents regarding his treatment options?
a) “Naltrexone may be an appropriate option to discuss”
b) “there are many medicine options that treat Kleptomania”
c) “Kevin may need to be prescribed antipsychotics to treat this illness”
d) “Lithium has proven effective for treating kleptomania”
Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating patients for impulsive aggression?
a) Anticonvulsant mood stabilizers can eradicate limbic irritability
b) Atypical antipsychotics can increase subcortical dopaminergic stimulation
c) Stimulants can be used to decrease frontal inhibition
d) Opioid antagonists can be used to reduce drive
A patient with hypersexual disorder is being assessed for possible pharmacologic treatment. Why does the PMHNP prescribe an antiandrogen for this patient?
a) It will prevent feelings of euphoria
b) It will amplify impulse control
c) It will block testosterone
d) It will redirect the patient to think about other things